xanzpet (xanzpet) wrote in medeaphiles,

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Discussion Questions

Greetings, fellow Medeaphiles!

Here's a new discussion question, for those of you who have read both Euripides' Medea and Andromache:

How much of Andromache's fate could also be ascribed to Medea, had she not taken the action she did again Jason? Would Medea, once divorced, have also suffered the same fate as a concubine, as she was a foreign woman on Greek soil?

Looking forward to your answers!
Tags: discussion question
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